You can compare two object repositories by following below steps:

1. In QuickTest Professional, select Resources > Object Repository Manager.
2. In the Object Repository Manager, select Tools > Object Repository Comparison Tool. The New Comparison dialog box opens on top of the Object Repository – Comparison Tool window.
3. In the First file and Second file boxes, enter or browse to and select the .tsr object repository files that you want to compare. The object repository files can be located in the file system or Quality Center. By default, the boxes display the last files selected for comparison using the Object Repository Comparison Tool. You can click the down arrow next to each box to view and select recently used files.
4. Click OK. The Object Repository Comparison Tool compares the objects in the selected object repositories and displays the results in the Statistics dialog box on top of the Object Repository – Comparison Tool window.
5. Review the statistics.
6. In the Object Repository – Comparison Tool window, you can:
– Filter the objects in the object repositories
– Find specific objects in the object repositories
Please note that the Object Repository Comparison Tool does not compare checkpoint or output objects. You cannot work with the Object Repository Manager or the Object Repository Merge Tool when the Object Repository Comparison Tool is open.

This Comparison Tool automatically identifies objects during the comparison process by classifying them into one of the following types:

1. Identical: Objects that appear in both object repository files. There is no difference in their name or in their properties.

2. Matching description, different name: Objects that appear in both object repository files that have different names, but the same description properties and values.

3. Similar description: Objects that appear in both object repository files that have similar, but not identical, description properties and values. One of the objects always has a subset of the properties set of the other object. This implies that it is likely to be a less detailed description of the same object. For example, an object named Button_1 in the second object repository has the same description properties and values as an object named Button_1 in the first object repository, but also has additional properties and values.

Objects that do not have a description, such as Page or Browser objects, are compared by name only. If the same object is contained in both the object repositories but with different names, they will be shown in the object repositories as two separate objects.

Please note that the Object Repository Comparison Tool gives precedence to matching object descriptions over the matching of object names. For this reason, certain object nodes may be linked during the comparison process and not others.

4. Unique to first file, or Unique to second file: Objects that appear in only one of the object repository files.

5. Does not exist: Objects that do not exist in one of the repository files, but do exist in the other file.

After the compare process, the Comparison Tool provides a graphic presentation of the objects in the object repositories, which are shown as nodes in a hierarchy. Objects that have differences, as well as unique objects that are included in one object repository only, can be identified according to a color configuration that you can select. Objects that are included in one object repository only are identified in the other object repository by the text “Does not exist”. You can also view the properties and values of each object that you select in either object repository.

If you are connected to a Quality Center 10.00 project with version control enabled, you can compare two versions of the same object repository.

The post Comparing Shared Object Repositories appeared first on Software Testing Stuff.

Q1. Who defined the standards?A) ISO
B) QAI
Ans. ISO

Q2. Juran is famous for

A) Quality Control
B) Management
Ans. Quality Control

Q3. Which one is not Statistical Tool?

A) Cause & effect Graphing
B) Stratification
C) Run Chart
D) Regression Analysis
Ans. Cause & effect Graphing

Q4. Histogram refers to
A) Bar Chart
B) Run Chart
C) Pareto
Ans. Bar Chart

Q5. Who are there in External IT TEAM?
A) Non Developer
B) Customer/ User

Q6. Which one is not Structural Testing?
A) Regression
B) Parallel
c) Acceptance
d) Stress
Ans. Acceptance

Q7. Who is not part of Inspection?
A) Prj Manager
B) Author
c) Moderator
d) Reader
e) Inspetor
Ans. Prj Manager

Q8. Tester job is not to

A) Report Defect
b) Who entered the defect in system
Ans. Who entered the defect in system

Q9. Which one is not secondary role of tester

A) Raising Issues
b) Instilling Confidence
c) cts improving process
d) Insight
e) developer work
Ans. developer work

Q10. Acceptance testing is

A) White Box
b) Black box
c) White box & black Box
d) none of the above
Ans. Black box

Q11. Deming 14 principle includes

A) mobility of mgmt
b) new philosphy
c) adobt leadership
d) both b& c
e) both a & c
Ans. both b& c

Q12 Configuration Management tool used in which phase.

A) Unit tetsing
b) Integration
c) accepting
d) all the phases
Ans. all the phases

Q13. Max Defects created in which phases

A) req
b) design
c) Implementaion
d) Coding
Ans. Req

Q14. 50% Defect found in which phase
A) req
b) design
c) Implementaion
d) Coding
Ans. req

Q15. defects are least costly in which phase

A) req
b) design
c) Implementaion
d) Coding
Ans. req

Some questions from Paper2 are below:

1) Software inspections categorize defects as Wrong, Missing and Extra.

A) TRUE
B) FALSE

2) The purpose of Risk Management in a project is to

A) Eliminate Risks
B) Minimize Risks
C) Avoid risks
D) Anticipate the risks

3) Testing of the system to demonstrate system compliance with user requirements is:

A) Black box testing
B) System testing
C) Independent testing
D) Acceptance Testing

4) Function point is a measure of

A) Effort
B) Complexity
C) Usability
D) None of the above

5) An activity that verifies compliance with policies and procedures and ensures that resources are conserved is

A) an inspection
B) an audit
C) a review
D) an assessment

6) Which is the application for the process management and quality improvement concepts to software development and maintenance.

A) Malcolm Baldridge
B) ISO 9000
C) QAI
D) QS14000

7) Software testing accounts for what percent of software development costs?

A) 10-20
B) 30-60
C) 70-80

8) Software errors are least costly to correct at what stage of the development cycle?

A) Requirements
B) Construction
C) Acceptance test
D) Design

9) Which of the following test approaches is not a Functional test approach?

A) Control Technique
B) Stress Technique
C) Regression Technique
D) Cause/effect Graphing
E) Requirements

10) Effectiveness is doing things right and efficiency is doing the right things

A) True
B) False

11) Juran is famous for

A) Quality Control
B) Quality Assurance
C) Trend Analysis

12) Top down & Bottom Up are the part of Incremental Testing

A) True
B) False

13) Achieving quality requires:

A) Understanding the customers expectations
B) Exceeding the customers expectations
C) Meeting all the definitions of quality
D) Focusing on the customer
E.) All the above

14) Which is NOT the exit criteria for unit testing

Objective Paper3:

Q1. there is a application which is delivered to the customer now customer found bugs and assume each bug cost is $125 and there are 4 bugs found each day and there are 5 working day. What should be the cost to fix those bugs

A) $300
b) $25000
c) $ 15000
d) $ 13,000
e) $ 26,000
Ans $2500

Q2. Tester should know

A) Test planning
b) Automation tool
c) Defect tracking tool
d) programming language
Ans. Defect Tracking tool

Q3. Pareto Analysis

A) 80-20 rule
b) Trend analysis
Ans. 80-20 Rule

Q4. Testing efforts in SDLC

A) 10-20 %
b) 30-60%
c) 60-80%
d) 80-90%
Ans 30-60%

Q5. Critical Listening is

A) Listen analyses what speaker said
b) Listen what is required
c) Listen only summary
Ans. Listen analyses what speaker said

Q6. Who finds vulnuralibility in system?

A) ICO
b) ISS
c) It Manager
Ans. ICO

Q7. COQ is not

A) Production
b) Appraisal
c) Prevention
d) Failure
Ans. Production

Q8. Training come under what category cost of quality?

A) Appraisal
b) Preventive
c) Failure
d) none of the above
Ans. Preventive

Q9. Why testing is called negative

A) Easy
b) delay in implementation
c) No training reqd

Q10. Incremental testing is Top down & bottom Up testing

A)True B) false

Q11. Effectiveness is doing right thing & efficency is doing thing right

True/ false
Ans False

Q12. Which one is not part of Demind

A) Plan
b) do
c) check
d) act
e) risk analysis
Ans. risk analysis

Q13. Defect fixed in which phase is lease cost

A) same phase
b) production
c) next phase
d) none
Ans. same phase

Q14. In White box testing test coverage is

a) Decision
b) Statement
c) branch
d) modified decision
e) user specified data coverage
Ans. Decision

Q15. Test Plan should not contain

A) Scope
b) Objective
c) Policy
d) Risk Analysis
Ans. policy

Q16. This question was on Test coverage?

Q17. Acceptance Testing is the responsibility of the:

A) Programmer
B) Project Leader
C) Independent Tester
D) Assistance programmer
E) User/Customer

Q18. Cost of Quality is least among

A) Prevention
B) Appraisal
C) Failure

Subjective Paper1: 

(Most of the subjective questions were from the back of CSTE book.)

1. Why we need to test the software.

2. Write the procedure for Test Plan, Test Script, Test Status Report.

3. You have to test the Web Application, what should be considered for the same.

4. Write test cases for the Data model & data field validation.

5. There is applications which can be accessible by one terminal & other by multiple terminals, write the points which won’t be considered for the Single terminal Application (Test factors)

6. Write the Test Strategy.

Subjective Paper 2:

1. Differentiate between Verification & validation. 15 marks

2. Define Test Efficiency & test Effectiveness. 15 marks

3. Your client would like to do Acceptance test on one of your projects but does not know to prepare a test plan for that. Describe the components that should be included in the test plan. 30 marks

4. You are the tester in the organization and organization thinks that the tester also introduce defects in the system, write the 5 such defects introduced by tester in the system. 15 marks

5. What is Over Testing? 15 marks

6. You have to do the Unit Testing of the system, define what is Unit testing and how it can be done, what are the types of it also how can you ensure that your application is compliance to the standards. 30 marks

7. Define Equivalence portioning, Boundary value Analysis and Error Guessing with examples. 15 marks

8. Your company is doing a project in automation of aircrafts and timing. You are asked to involve in the testing. What should be the testing strategy for that. One Airline Web Application has to be tested, write test factor or What is to be tested? (Landing & take off) 15 marks

9. Define
a) Boundary Analysis
b) Equivalent Partitioning
c) Error Guessing
Give one example for each.

Subjective Paper 1 – December 2005:

1. Describe four tests you would use to test COTS software.

2. A Web-application is to be installed but suspected that it will might fail in production. Describe four tests you would recommend to your manager to answer the question “How long it would take for the application to recover after it fails”

3. You are the Test Manager of a company, which has outsourced its testing activities. What you would state to your IT Manager in terms of your responsibilities as Test Manager to give him assurance that testing would be conducted properly

4. Describe any four processes you would establish in a test environment and why?

Subjective Paper 2 – December 2005:

1. What would you include in a defect report.

2. What is “v” in v-testing concept and list the stages.

3. Draw a Unit testing workbench, describe each activity in the workbench.

4. You are to introduce automated testing tools. List any four automated test tools with vendor name and why did you choose them.

5. Describe Risk, risk analysis, threat, vulnerability, internal control.

6. Describe statement, branch, condition, expression, path coverage

7. Describe any 3 defect-related metrics.

8. For a web-based application, list 4 important quality factors you would test for. Also state why are they important.

Please note that I got these questions from some of my friends who appear in CSTE in September and December 2005. These are not all questions of the papers. These are those questions, which they remember. I’ll try to update these as I came to know more…Some more certification preparation Question Papers:

• CSTE – Sept 16th 2006
• CSTE – June 17th 2006
• CSTE – April 22nd 2006
• ISEB Paper – 1
• ISEB Paper – 2
• ISEB Paper – 3
• ISTQB Paper – 1
• ISTQB Paper – 2
• ISTQB Paper – 3
• ISTQB Paper – 4
• ISTQB Paper – 5
• ISTQB Paper – 6
• ISTQB Paper – 7
• ISTQB paper – 8
• ISTQB paper – 9

The post CSTE September/December 2005 appeared first on Software Testing Stuff.

a) Each test stage has a different purpose.
b) It is easier to manage testing in stages.
c) We can run different tests in different environments.
d) The more stages we have, the better the testing.

Q2. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools providing test capture and replay

facilities?
a) Regression testing
b) Integration testing
c) System testing
d) User acceptance testing

Q3. Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

a) A minimal test set that achieves 100% LCSAJ coverage will also achieve 100% branch coverage.
b) A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will also achieve 100% statement coverage.
c) A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will generally detect more faults than one that achieves 100% statement coverage.
d) A minimal test set that achieves 100% statement coverage will generally detect more faults than one that achieves 100% branch coverage.

Q4. Which of the following requirements is testable?

a) The system shall be user friendly.
b) The safety-critical parts of the system shall contain 0 faults.
c) The response time shall be less than one second for the specified design load.
d) The system shall be built to be portable.

Q5. Analyse the following highly simplified procedure:

Ask: “What type of ticket do you require, single or return?”
IF the customer wants ‘return’
Ask: “What rate, Standard or Cheap-day?”
IF the customer replies ‘Cheap-day’
Say: “That will be £11:20”
ELSE
Say: “That will be £19:50”
ENDIF
ELSE
Say: “That will be £9:75”
ENDIF
Now decide the minimum number of tests that are needed to ensure that all the questions have been asked, all combinations have occurred and all replies given.
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6

Q6. Error guessing:

a) supplements formal test design techniques.
b) can only be used in component, integration and system testing.
c) is only performed in user acceptance testing.
d) is not repeatable and should not be used.

Q7. Which of the following is NOT true of test coverage criteria?

a) Test coverage criteria can be measured in terms of items exercised by a test suite.
b) A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of user requirements covered.
c) A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of faults found.
d) Test coverage criteria are often used when specifying test completion criteria.

Q8. In prioritising what to test, the most important objective is to:

a) find as many faults as possible.
b) test high risk areas.
c) obtain good test coverage.
d) test whatever is easiest to test.

Q9. Given the following sets of test management terms (v-z), and activity descriptions (1-5), which one of the following best pairs the two sets?

v – test control
w – test monitoring
x – test estimation
y – incident management
z – configuration control

1 – calculation of required test resources
2 – maintenance of record of test results
3 – re-allocation of resources when tests overrun
4 – report on deviation from test plan
5 – tracking of anomalous test results

a) v-3,w-2,x-1,y-5,z-4
b) v-2,w-5,x-1,y-4,z-3
c) v-3,w-4,x-1,y-5,z-2 v-2,
d) w-1,x-4,y-3,z-5

Q10. Which one of the following statements about system testing is NOT true?

a) System tests are often performed by independent teams.
b) Functional testing is used more than structural testing.
c) Faults found during system tests can be very expensive to fix.
d) End-users should be involved in system tests.

Q11. Which of the following is false?

a) Incidents should always be fixed.
b) An incident occurs when expected and actual results differ.
c) Incidents can be analysed to assist in test process improvement.
d) An incident can be raised against documentation.

Q12. Enough testing has been performed when:

a) time runs out.
b) the required level of confidence has been achieved.
c) no more faults are found.
d) the users won’t find any serious faults.

Q13. Which of the following is NOT true of incidents?

a) Incident resolution is the responsibility of the author of the software under test.
b) Incidents may be raised against user requirements.
c) Incidents require investigation and/or correction.
d) Incidents are raised when expected and actual results differ.

Q14. Which of the following is not described in a unit test standard?

a) syntax testing
b) equivalence partitioning
c) stress testing
d) modified condition/decision coverage

Q15. Which of the following is false?

a) In a system two different failures may have different severities.
b) A system is necessarily more reliable after debugging for the removal of a fault.
c) A fault need not affect the reliability of a system.
d) Undetected errors may lead to faults and eventually to incorrect behaviour.

Q16. Which one of the following statements, about capture-replay tools, is NOT correct?

a) They are used to support multi-user testing.
b) They are used to capture and animate user requirements.
c) They are the most frequently purchased types of CAST tool.
d) They capture aspects of user behavior.

Q17. How would you estimate the amount of re-testing likely to be required?

a) Metrics from previous similar projects
b) Discussions with the development team
c) Time allocated for regression testing
d) a & b

Q18. Which of the following is true of the V-model?

a) It states that modules are tested against user requirements.
b) It only models the testing phase.
c) It specifies the test techniques to be used.
d) It includes the verification of designs.

Q19. The oracle assumption:

a) is that there is some existing system against which test output may be checked.
b) is that the tester can routinely identify the correct outcome of a test.
c) is that the tester knows everything about the software under test.
d) is that the tests are reviewed by experienced testers.

Q20. Which of the following characterises the cost of faults?

a) They are cheapest to find in the early development phases and the most expensive to fix in the latest test phases.
b) They are easiest to find during system testing but the most expensive to fix then.
c) Faults are cheapest to find in the early development phases but the most expensive to fix then.
d) Although faults are most expensive to find during early development phases, they are cheapest to fix then.

Q21. Which of the following should NOT normally be an objective for a test?

a) To find faults in the software.
b) To assess whether the software is ready for release.
c) To demonstrate that the software doesn’t work.
d) To prove that the software is correct.

Q22. Which of the following is a form of functional testing?

a) Boundary value analysis
b) Usability testing
c) Performance testing
d) Security testing

Q23. Which of the following would NOT normally form part of a test plan?

a) Features to be tested
b) Incident reports
c) Risks
d) Schedule

Q24. Which of these activities provides the biggest potential cost saving from the use of CAST?

a) Test management
b) Test design
c) Test execution
d) Test planning

Q25. Which of the following is NOT a white box technique?

a) Statement testing
b) Path testing
c) Data flow testing
d) State transition testing

Q26. Data flow analysis studies:

a) possible communications bottlenecks in a program.
b) the rate of change of data values as a program executes.
c) the use of data on paths through the code.
d) the intrinsic complexity of the code.

Q27. In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10%The next £28000 is taxed at 22%Any further amount is taxed at 40%To the nearest whole pound, which of these is a valid Boundary Value Analysis test case?

a) £1500
b) £32001
c) £33501
d) £28000

Q28. An important benefit of code inspections is that they:

a) enable the code to be tested before the execution environment is ready.
b) can be performed by the person who wrote the code.
c) can be performed by inexperienced staff.
d) are cheap to perform.

Q29. Which of the following is the best source of Expected Outcomes for User Acceptance Test scripts?

a) Actual results
b) Program specification
c) User requirements
d) System specification

Q30. What is the main difference between a walkthrough and an inspection?

a) An inspection is lead by the author, whilst a walkthrough is lead by a trained moderator.
b) An inspection has a trained leader, whilst a walkthrough has no leader.
c) Authors are not present during inspections, whilst they are during walkthroughs.
d) A walkthrough is lead by the author, whilst an inspection is lead by a trained moderator

Q31. Which one of the following describes the major benefit of verification early in the life cycle?

a) It allows the identification of changes in user requirements.
b) It facilitates timely set up of the test environment.
c) It reduces defect multiplication.
d) It allows testers to become involved early in the project.

Q32. Integration testing in the small:

a) tests the individual components that have been developed.
b) tests interactions between modules or subsystems.
c) only uses components that form part of the live system.
d) tests interfaces to other systems

Q33. Static analysis is best described as:

a) the analysis of batch programs.
b) the reviewing of test plans.
c) the analysis of program code.
d) the use of black box testing

Q34. Alpha testing is:

a) post-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site.
b) the first testing that is performed.
c) pre-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site.
d) pre-release testing by end user representatives at their sites.

Q35. A failure is:

a) found in the software; the result of an error.
b) departure from specified behaviour.
c) an incorrect step, process or data definition in a computer program.
d) a human action that produces an incorrect result.

Q36. In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10%The next £28000 is taxed at 22%Any further amount is taxed at 40%Which of these groups of numbers would fall into the same equivalence class?

a) £4800; £14000; £28000
b) £5200; £5500; £28000
c) £28001; £32000; £35000
d) £5800; £28000; £32000

Q37. The most important thing about early test design is that it:

a) makes test preparation easier.
b) means inspections are not required.
c) can prevent fault multiplication.
d) will find all faults.

Q38. Which of the following statements about reviews is true?

a) Reviews cannot be performed on user requirements specifications.
b) Reviews are the least effective way of testing code.
c) Reviews are unlikely to find faults in test plans.
d) Reviews should be performed on specifications, code, and test plans.

Q39. Test cases are designed during:

a) test recording.
b) test planning.
c) test configuration.
d) test specification.

Q40. A configuration management system would NOT normally provide:

a) linkage of customer requirements to version numbers.
b) facilities to compare test results with expected results.
c) the precise differences in versions of software component source code.
d) restricted access to the source code library.

Also See:
ISEB Paper – 2
ISEB Paper – 3
CSTE Paper – 1
CSTE Paper – 2
CSTE Paper – 3
ISTQB Paper – 1
ISTQB Paper – 2
ISTQB Paper – 3
ISTQB Paper – 4
ISTQB Paper – 5
ISTQB Paper – 6
ISTQB Paper – 7
ISTQB paper – 8
ISTQB Paper – 9

Below are the answers of the questions in this post:

1 – A
2 – A
3 – D
4 – C
5 – A
6 – A
7 – C
8 – B
9 – C
10 – D
11 – A
12 – B
13 – A
14 – C
15 – B
16 – B
17 – D
18 – D
19 – B
20 – A
21 – D
22 – A
23 – B
24 – C
25 – D
26 – C
27 – C
28 – A
29 – C
30 – D
31 – C
32 – B
33 – C
34 – C
35 – B
36 – D
37 – C
38 – D
39 – D
40 – B

The post ISEB Foundation Certificate in Software Testing Practice Exam – 1 appeared first on Software Testing Stuff.

The post HP QTP Certification HP-M016 Practice Exam Questions – 3 appeared first on Software Testing Stuff.

a) an error
b) a fault
c) a failure
d) a defect

Q2. Regression testing should be performed:

v) every week
W) after the software has changed
x) as often as possible
y) when the environment has changed
z) when the project manager says

a) v & w are true, x, y & z are false
b) w, x & y are true, v & z are false
c) w & y are true, v, x & z are false
d) w is true, v, x, y & z are false

Q3. IEEE 829 test plan documentation standard contains all of the following except

a) test items
b) test deliverables
c) test tasks
d) test specifications

Q4. When should testing be stopped?

a) when all the planned tests have been run
b) when time has run out
c) when all faults have been fixed correctly
d) it depends on the risks for the system being tested

Q5. Order numbers on a stock control system can range between 10000 and 99999 inclusive. Which of the following inputs might be a result of designing tests for only valid equivalence classes and valid boundaries?

a) 1000, 50000, 99999
b) 9999, 50000, 100000
c) 10000, 50000, 99999
d) 10000, 99999, 100000

Q6. Consider the following statements about early test design:

i. early test design can prevent fault multiplication
ii. faults found during early test design are more expensive to fix
iii. early test design can find faults
iv. early test design can cause changes to the requirements
v. early test design normally takes more effort

a) i, iii & iv are true; ii & v are false
b) iii & iv are true; i, ii & v are false
c) i, iii, iv & v are true; ii is false
d) i & ii are true; iii, iv & v are false

Q7. Non-functional system testing includes:

a) testing to see where the system does not function correctly
b) testing quality attributes of the system including performance and usability
c) testing a system function using only the software required for that function
d) testing for functions that should not exist

Q8. Which of the following is NOT part of configuration management?

a) auditing conformance to ISO 9000
b) status accounting of configuration items
c) identification of test versions
d) controlled library access

Q9. Which of the following is the main purpose of the integration strategy for integration testing in the small?

a) to ensure that all of the small modules are tested adequately
b) to ensure that the system interfaces to other systems and networks
c) to specify which modules to combine when, and how many at once
d) to specify how the software should be divided into modules

Q10. What is the purpose of a test completion criterion?

a) to know when a specific test has finished its execution
b) to ensure that the test case specification is complete
c) to set the criteria used in generating test inputs
d) to determine when to stop testing

Q11. Consider the following statements:

i. an incident may be closed without being fixed.
ii. incidents may not be raised against documentation.
iii. the final stage of incident tracking is fixing.
iv. the incident record does not include information on test environments.

a) ii is true, i, iii and iv are false
b) i is true, ii, iii and iv are false
c) i and iv are true, ii and iii are false
d) i and ii are true, iii and iv are false

Q12. Given the following code, which statement is true about the minimum number of test cases required for full statement and branch coverage?

Read p
Read q
IF p+q > 100 THEN
Print “Large”
ENDIF
IF p > 50 THEN
Print “p Large”
ENDIF

a) 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
b) 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
c) 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
d) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage

Q13. Consider the following statements:

i. 100% statement coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
ii. 100% branch coverage guarantees 100% statement coverage.
iii. 100% branch coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.
iv. 100% decision coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
v. 100% statement coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.

a) ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are False
b) i & v are True; ii, iii & iv are False
c) ii & iii are True; i, iv & v are False
d) ii, iii & iv are True; i & v are False

Q14. Functional system testing is:

a) testing that the system functions with other systems
b) testing that the components that comprise the system function together
c) testing the end to end functionality of the system as a whole
d) testing the system performs functions within specified response times

Q15. Incidents would not be raised against:

a) requirements
b) documentation
c) test cases
d) improvements suggested by users

Q16. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration Management?

a) operating systems
b) test documentation
c) live data
d) user requirement documents

Q17. Maintenance testing is:

a) updating tests when the software has changed
b) testing a released system that has been changed
c) testing by users to ensure that the system meets a business need
d) testing to maintain business advantage

Q18. What can static analysis NOT find?

a) the use of a variable before it has been defined
b) unreachable (“dead”) code
c) memory leaks
d) array bound violations

Q19. Which of the following techniques is NOT a black box technique?

a) state transition testing
b) LCSAJ
c) syntax testing
d) boundary value analysis

Q20. Beta testing is:

a) performed by customers at their own site
b) performed by customers at the software developer’s site
c) performed by an Independent Test Team
d) performed as early as possible in the lifecycle

Q21. Given the following types of tool, which tools would typically be used by developers, and which by an independent system test team?

i. static analysis
ii. performance testing
iii. test management
iv. dynamic analysis

a) developers would typically use i and iv; test team ii and iii
b) developers would typically use i and iii; test team ii and iv
c) developers would typically use ii and iv; test team i and iii
d) developers would typically use i, iii and iv; test team ii

Q22. The main focus of acceptance testing is:

a) finding faults in the system
b) ensuring that the system is acceptable to all users
c) testing the system with other systems
d) testing from a business perspective

Q23. Which of the following statements about component testing is FALSE?

a) black box test design techniques all have an associated test measurement technique
b) white box test design techniques all have an associated test measurement technique
c) cyclomatic complexity is not a test measurement technique
d) black box test measurement techniques all have an associated test design technique

Q24. Which of the following statements is NOT true?

a) inspection is the most formal review process
b) inspections should be led by a trained leader
c) managers can perform inspections on management documents
d) inspection is appropriate even when there are no written documents

Q25. A typical commercial test execution tool would be able to perform all of the following, EXCEPT:

a) calculating expected outputs
b) comparison of expected outcomes with actual outcomes
c) recording test inputs
d) reading test values from a data file

Q26. The difference between re-testing and regression testing is:

a) re-testing ensures the original fault has been removed; regression testing looks for unexpected side-effects
b) re-testing looks for unexpected side-effects; regression testing ensures the original fault has been removed
c) re-testing is done after faults are fixed; regression testing is done earlier
d) re-testing is done by developers; regression testing is done by independent testers

Q27. Expected results are:

a) only important in system testing
b) only used in component testing
c) most useful when specified in advance
d) derived from the code

Q28. What type of review requires formal entry and exit criteria, including metrics:

a) walkthrough
b) inspection
c) management review
d) post project review

Q29. Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

a) component testing
b) non-functional system testing
c) user acceptance testing
d) maintenance testing

Q30. What is NOT included in typical costs for an inspection process?

a) setting up forms and databases
b) analysing metrics and improving processes
c) writing the documents to be inspected
d) time spent on the document outside the meeting

Q31. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:

a) to find faults in the software
b) to prove that the software has no faults
c) to give confidence in the software
d) to find performance problems

Q32. Which expression best matches the following characteristics of the review processes:

1. led by the author
2. undocumented
3. no management participation
4. led by a moderator or leader
5. uses entry and exit criteria

s) inspection
t) peer review
u) informal review
v) walkthrough

a) s = 4 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 1
b) s = 4, t = 3, u = 2 and 5, v = 1
c) s = 1 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 4
d) s = 4 and 5, t = 1, u= 2, v = 3

Q33. Which of the following is NOT part of system testing?

a) business process-based testing
b) performance, load and stress testing
c) usability testing
d) top-down integration testing

Q34. Which statement about expected outcomes is FALSE?

a) expected outcomes are defined by the software’s behaviour
b) expected outcomes are derived from a specification, not from the code
c) expected outcomes should be predicted before a test is run
d) expected outcomes may include timing constraints such as response times

Q35. The standard that gives definitions of testing terms is:

a) ISO/IEC 12207
b) BS 7925-1
c) ANSI/IEEE 829
d) ANSI/IEEE 729

Q36. The cost of fixing a fault:

a) is not important
b) increases the later a fault is found
c) decreases the later a fault is found
d) can never be determined

Q37. Which of the following is NOT included in the Test Plan document of the Test Documentation Standard?

a) what is not to be tested
b) test environment properties
c) quality plans
d) schedules and deadlines

Q38. Could reviews or inspections be considered part of testing?

a) no, because they apply to development documentation
b) no, because they are normally applied before testing
c) yes, because both help detect faults and improve quality
d) yes, because testing includes all non-constructive activities

Q39. Which of the following is not part of performance testing?

a) measuring response times
b) recovery testing
c) simulating many users
d) generating many transactions

Q40. Error guessing is best used:

a) after more formal techniques have been applied
b) as the first approach to deriving test cases
c) by inexperienced testers
d) after the system has gone live

Also See:

• ISEB Paper – 1
• ISEB Paper – 3
• CSTE Paper – 1
• CSTE Paper – 2
• CSTE Paper – 3
• ISTQB Paper – 1
• ISTQB Paper – 2
• ISTQB Paper – 3
• ISTQB Paper – 4
• ISTQB Paper – 5
• ISTQB Paper – 6
• ISTQB Paper – 7
• ISTQB paper – 8
• ISTQB Paper – 9

The post ISEB Foundation Certificate in Software Testing Practice Exam – 2 appeared first on Software Testing Stuff.

This can be done by following below simple steps:

Step 1: Create a New Action or Function

Open a test and insert a new action, or open a new function library and create a new function called SetVariables.

If you are working in the Expert View, then follow Step 4 directly. If you are working in a function library, continue with Step 2 and Step 3.

Step 2: (For Function Libraries Only) Associate the Function Library with a Test

Make sure the function library is in focus. Select File > Associate Library ‘<Function Library Name>’ with ‘<Test Name>’. QuickTest associates the function library with your test.

Step 3: (For Function Libraries Only) Add a Call to the Function in Your Test

Add a call to the function by inserting a new step and typing the following in the Expert View: SetVariables.

Step 4: Add Breakpoints

Add breakpoints at the appropriate lines.

Step 5: Begin Running the Test

Run the test. The test or function library stops at the first breakpoint, before executing that step (line of script).

Step 6: Check the Value of the Variables in the Debug Viewer Pane

Step 7: Check the Value of the Variables at the Next Breakpoint

Click the Run button to continue running the test. The test stops at the next breakpoint.

Step 8: Modify the Value of a Variable Using the Variables Tab

Step 9: Modify the Value of a Variable Using the Command Tab

Step 10: Repeat a Command from the Command History

The post Debugging an Action or a Function in QTP appeared first on Software Testing Stuff.

Q2. Faults found by users are due to:
a. Poor quality software
b. Poor software and poor testing
c. bad luck
d. insufficient time for testing

Q3. What is the main reason for testing software before releasing it?
a. to show that system will work after release
b. to decide when the software is of sufficient quality to release
c. to find as many bugs as possible before release
d. to give information for a risk based decision about release

4. which of the following statements is not true
a. performance testing can be done during unit testing as well as during the testing of whole system
b. The acceptance test does not necessarily include a regression test
c. Verification activities should not involve testers (reviews, inspections etc)
d. Test environments should be as similar to production environments as possible

Q5. When reporting faults found to developers, testers should be:
a. as polite, constructive and helpful as possible
b. firm about insisting that a bug is not a “feature” if it should be fixed
c. diplomatic, sensitive to the way they may react to criticism
d. All of the above

Q6. In which order should tests be run?
a. the most important tests first
b. the most difficult tests first(to allow maximum time for fixing)
c. the easiest tests first(to give initial confidence)
d. the order they are thought of

Q7. The later in the development life cycle a fault is discovered, the more expensive it is to fix. why?a. the documentation is poor, so it takes longer to find out what the software is doing.
b. wages are rising
c. the fault has been built into more documentation,code,tests, etc
d. none of the above

Q8. Which is not true-The black box tester
a. should be able to understand a functional specification or requirements document
b. should be able to understand the source code.
c. is highly motivated to find faults
d. is creative to find the system’s weaknesses

Q9. A test design technique is
a. a process for selecting test cases
b. a process for determining expected outputs
c. a way to measure the quality of software
d. a way to measure in a test plan what has to be done

Q10. Testware (test cases, test dataset)
a. needs configuration management just like requirements, design and code
b. should be newly constructed for each new version of the software
c. is needed only until the software is released into production or use
d. does not need to be documented and commented, as it does not form part of the released software system

Q11. An incident logging system
a. only records defects
b. is of limited value
c. is a valuable source of project information during testing if it contains all incidents
d. should be used only by the test team.

Q12. Increasing the quality of the software, by better development methods, will affect the time needed for testing (the test phases) by:
a. reducing test time
b. no change
c. increasing test time
d. can’t say

Q13. Coverage measurement
a. is nothing to do with testing
b. is a partial measure of test thoroughness
c. branch coverage should be mandatory for all software
d. can only be applied at unit or module testing, not at system testing

Q14. When should you stop testing?
a. when time for testing has run out.
b. when all planned tests have been run
c. when the test completion criteria have been met
d. when no faults have been found by the tests run

Q15. Which of the following is true?
a. Component testing should be black box, system testing should be white box.
b. if u find a lot of bugs in testing, you should not be very confident about the quality of software
c. the fewer bugs you find,the better your testing was
d. the more tests you run, the more bugs you will find.

Q 16. What is the important criterion in deciding what testing technique to use?
a. how well you know a particular technique
b. the objective of the test
c. how appropriate the technique is for testing the application
d. whether there is a tool to support the technique

Q17. If the pseudocode below were a programming language ,how many tests are required to achieve 100% statement coverage?
1. If x=3 then
2. Display_messageX;
3. If y=2 then
4. Display_messageY;
5. Else
6. Display_messageZ;
7. Else
8. Display_messageZ;

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

Q18. Using the same code example as question 17,how many tests are required to achieve 100% branch/decision coverage?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

Q19. Which of the following is NOT a type of non-functional test?
a. State-Transition
b. Usability
c. Performance
d. Security

Q20. Which of the following tools would you use to detect a memory leak?
a. State analysis
b. Coverage analysis
c. Dynamic analysis
d. Memory analysis

Q21. Which of the following is NOT a standard related to testing?
a. IEEE829
b. IEEE610
c. BS7925-1
d. BS7925-2

Q22. Which of the following is the component test standard?
a. IEEE 829
b. IEEE 610
c. BS7925-1
d. BS7925-2

Q23. Which of the following statements are true?
a. Faults in program specifications are the most expensive to fix.
b. Faults in code are the most expensive to fix.
c. Faults in requirements are the most expensive to fix
d. Faults in designs are the most expensive to fix.

Q24. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?
a. Design based
b. Big-bang
c. Bottom-up
d. Top-down

Q25. Which of the following is a black box design technique?
a. statement testing
b. equivalence partitioning
c. error- guessing
d. usability testing

Q26. A program with high cyclometic complexity is almost likely to be:
a. Large
b. Small
c. Difficult to write
d. Difficult to test

Q27. Which of the following is a static test?
a. code inspection
b. coverage analysis
c. usability assessment
d. installation test

Q28. Which of the following is the odd one out?
a. white box
b. glass box
c. structural
d. functional

Q29. A program validates a numeric field as follows:

“values less than 10 are rejected, values between 10 and 21 are accepted, values greater than or equal to 22 are rejected”

which of the following input values cover all of the equivalence partitions?

a. 10,11,21
b. 3,20,21
c. 3,10,22
d. 10,21,22

Q30. Using the same specifications as question 29, which of the following covers the MOST boundary values?
a. 9,10,11,22
b. 9,10,21,22
c. 10,11,21,22
d. 10,11,20,21

Also see, more ISEB Question Papers:
ISEB Paper – 1
ISEB Paper – 2
CSTE Paper – 1
CSTE Paper – 2
CSTE Paper – 3
ISTQB Paper – 1
ISTQB Paper – 2
ISTQB Paper – 3
ISTQB Paper – 4
ISTQB Paper – 5
ISTQB Paper – 6
ISTQB Paper – 7
ISTQB paper – 8
ISTQB Paper – 9

The post ISEB Foundation Certificate in Software Testing Practice Exam – 3 appeared first on Software Testing Stuff.

1. Using the Backslash Character: A backslash (\) can serve two purposes. It can be used in conjunction with a special character to indicate that the next character be treated as a literal character. For example, \.would be treated as period (.) instead of a wildcard. Alternatively, if the backslash (\) is used in conjunction with some characters that would otherwise be treated as literal characters, such as the letters n, t, w, or d, the combination indicates a special character. For example, \n stands for the newline character.
2. Matching Any Single Character: A period (.) instructs QTP to search for any single character (except for \n).
3. Matching Any Single Character in a List: Square brackets instruct QTP to search for any single character within a list of characters.
4. Matching Any Single Character Not in a List: When a caret (^) is the first character inside square brackets, it instructs QTP to match any character in the list except for the ones specified in the string.
5. Matching Any Single Character within a Range: To match a single character within a range, you can use square brackets ([ ]) with the hyphen (-) character.
6. Matching Zero or More Specific Characters: An asterisk (*) instructs QTP to match zero or more occurrences of the preceding character.
7. Matching One or More Specific Characters: A plus sign (+) instructs QTP to match one or more occurrences of the preceding character.
8. Matching Zero or One Specific Character: A question mark (?) instructs QTP to match zero or one occurrences of the preceding character.
9. Grouping Regular Expressions: Parentheses (()) instruct QTP to treat the contained sequence as a unit, just as in mathematics and programming languages. Using groups is especially useful for delimiting the argument(s) to an alternation operator ( | ) or a repetition operator ( * , + , ? , { } ).
10. Matching One of Several Regular Expressions: A vertical line (|) instructs QTP to match one of a choice of expressions.
11. Matching the Beginning of a Line: A caret (^) instructs QTP to match the expression only at the start of a line, or after a newline character.
12. Matching the End of a Line: A dollar sign ($) instructs QTP to match the expression only at the end of a line, or before a newline character.
13. Matching Any AlphaNumeric Character Including the Underscore: \w instructs QTP to match any alphanumeric character and the underscore (A-Z, a-z, 0-9, _).
14. Matching Any Non-AlphaNumeric Character: \W instructs QTP to match any character other than alphanumeric characters and underscores.
15. Combining Regular Expression Operators: You can combine regular expression operators in a single expression to achieve the exact search criteria you need.

The post Ways to create Regular Expressions in QTP appeared first on Software Testing Stuff.

Understanding Components: Components are easily-maintained reusable scripts that perform a specific task, and are the building blocks from which an effective business process testing structure can be produced. Components are parts of a business process that has been broken down into smaller parts. For example, in most applications users need to log in before they can do anything else. A Subject Matter Expert can create one component that represents the login procedure for an application. Each component can then be reused in different business process tests, resulting in easier maintenance, updating, and test management.

Components are comprised of steps. For example, the login component’s first step may be to open the application. Its second step could be entering a user name. Its third step could be entering a password, and its fourth step could be clicking the Enter button.

You can create and edit components in QuickTest by adding steps on any supported environment, parameterizing selected items, and enhancing the component by incorporating functions (operations) that encapsulate the steps needed to perform a particular task. In Quality Center, a Subject Matter Expert creates components and combines them into business process tests, which are used to check that the application behaves as expected.

Creating Components in the Quality Center Business Components Module

The Subject Matter Expert can create a new component and define it in the Quality Center Business Components module. The Business Component module includes the following:

Details: Provides a general summary of the component’s purpose or goals, and the condition of the application before and after a component is run (its pre-conditions and post-conditions).

Snapshot: Displays an image that provides a visual cue or description of the component’s purpose or operations.

Parameters: Specifies the input and output component parameter values for the business component. Implementing and using parameters enables a component to receive data from an external source and to pass data to other components in the business process test flow.

Design Steps: Enables you to create or view the manual steps of your business component, and to automate it if required.

Automation: Displays or provides access to automated components. For keyword-driven components, enables you to create and modify the steps of your automated business component in a keyword-driven, table format, and provides a plain-language textual description of each step of the implemented component.

Used by: Provides details about the business process tests that include the currently selected business component. The tab also includes a link to the relevant business process test in the Test Plan module.

Component Requests pane: Enables you to handle new component requests that were generated in the Test Plan module. Component requests are requests to add a new business component to the project.

Implementing Components in QuickTest Professional

Generally, components are created by Subject Matter Experts in Quality Center, although they can also be created and debugged in QuickTest.

In QuickTest, you create components by recording steps on any supported environment or by adding steps manually (if the object repository is populated and the required operations are available). You can parameterize selected items. You can also view and set options specific to components.

QuickTest enables you to create and modify two types of components: business components and scripted components. A business component is an easily-maintained, reusable unit comprising one or more steps that perform a specific task. A scripted component is an automated component that can contain programming logic. Scripted components share functionality with both test actions and business components. For example, you can use the Keyword View, the Expert View, and other QuickTest tools and options to create, view, modify, and debug scripted components in QuickTest. Due to their complexity, scripted components can be edited only in QuickTest. (If needed, you can convert test actions to scripted components. For more information, click the Help button in the Action Conversion Tool window.)

In Quality Center, the Subject Matter Expert can open components created in QuickTest. The Subject Matter Expert can then view and edit business components, but can only view the details for scripted components.

Creating Business Process Tests in the Quality Center Test Plan Module

 To create a business process test, the Subject Matter Expert selects (drags and drops) the components that apply to the business process test and configures their run settings.

Note: When you run a business process test from Quality Center, the test run may also be influenced by settings in the QuickTest Remote Agent.

Each component can be used differently by different business process tests. For example, in each test the component can be configured to use different input parameter values or run a different number of iterations.

If, while creating a business process test, the Subject Matter Expert realizes that a component has not been defined for an element that is necessary for the business process test, the Subject Matter Expert can submit a component request from the Test Plan module.

Running Business Process Tests and Analyzing the Results

You can use the run and debug options in QuickTest to run and debug an individual component.

You can debug a business process test by running the test from the Test Plan module in Quality Center. When you choose to run from this module, you can choose which components to run in debug mode. (This pauses the run at the beginning of a component.)

When the business process test has been debugged and is ready for regular test runs, the Subject Matter Expert runs it from the Test Lab module similar to the way any other test is run in Quality Center. Before running the test, the Subject Matter Expert can define run-time parameter values and iterations using the Iterations column in the Test Lab module grid.

From the Test Lab module, you can view the results of the entire business process test run. The results include the value of each parameter, and the results of individual steps reported by QuickTest.

You can click the Open Report link to open the complete QuickTest report. The hierarchical report contains all the different iterations and components within the business process test run.

Understanding the Differences Between Components and Tests

If you are already familiar with using QuickTest to create action-based tests, you will find that the procedures for creating and editing components are quite similar. However, due to the design and purpose of the component model, there are certain differences in the way you create, edit, and run components. The guidelines below provide an overview of these differences.

– A component is a single entity. It cannot contain multiple actions or have calls to other actions or to other components.

– When working with components, all external files are stored in the Quality Center project to which you are currently connected.

– The name of the component node in the Keyword View is the same as the saved component. You cannot rename the node.

– Business components are created in the Keyword View, not the Expert View.
You add resources via the component’s application area, and not directly to the component.

– Components use custom keywords created in function libraries to perform operations, such as verifying property values and opening the application you are testing.

The post BPT Methodology in QTP and Quality Center appeared first on Software Testing Stuff.

Datatable Object and related Functions: Basic use of Datatable object is to create an object for adding, deleting, updating data of an excel sheet used. Main functions of the datatable object:

• Importsheet : This function is used to Import sheet into the script, so that all the data in the imported sheet can be used in the script.

Syntax:
Datatable.Importsheet(“nameofExcelfilewithpath”, “nameofthesourcesheet”, “nameofthedestinationsheet”)

• Exportsheet : This function is used to Export sheet from the script, all the data including output values are stored in the default sheet for the action, this sheet is exported and stored in a specified location using this function.

Syntax:
Datatable.Exportsheet(“nameofExcelfilewithpath”, “Nameofthesheet”)

• Addsheet: Used for adding a sheet into the script file
• GetRowCount: This function is used to get the no of rows in a particular sheet. Syntax: Datatable.AddSheet(“Sheetname”).GetRowCount
• GetCurrentRow: This function is used to get the current row of a particular sheet.

When an action is run by using run setting as “run on all rows”, that action will run as many times as the number of rows in the excel sheet of the action, in order to find the row for which action is running currently we use GetCurrentRow function.

Syntax: Datatable.GetSheet(“Sheetname”).GetCurrentRow

Organizing Data Sheets for Global & Local variables: There are two types of sheets in any QTP Script, they are

• Globalsheet
• Localsheet

Globalsheet: Globalsheet in any script is unique, Globalsheet is used in order to store values in the sheet and the values stored in Globalsheet can be used in all the actions. For storing a value in the global sheet we use the following function:

Datatable.Value(“Fieldname”,”Global”) = Value

For using the values from the global sheet we use the following function:

Value = Datatable.Value(“Fieldname”,”Global”)

Localsheet: Each and every action in the script will have its own Localsheet, name of the Localsheet of a particular action is same as the action name. For using the data from the Local sheet we use following function:

Datatable.Value(“Fieldname”,dtlocalsheet)
Or
Datatable.Value(“Fieldname”,”Sheetname”)

Parameterization using Data driven Wizard: The Data Driver enables you to quickly parameterize several (or all) property values for test objects, checkpoints, and/or method arguments containing the same constant value within a given action.

You can choose to replace all occurrences of a selected constant value with a parameter, in the same way that you can use a Find and Replace All operation instead of a step-by-step Find and Replace process. QuickTest can also show you each occurrence of the constant so that you can decide whether or not to parameterize the value.
If any property of an object is taken, that property can be parameterized using Data driven Wizard, different steps for parameterization using Data driven Wizard is as follows:

• Go to tool bar option Tools and select Data Driver option
• We will get a list of all the properties of all the objects which can be parameterized (i.e. for all the objects where a value for a property is given in the script)

Step-by-step Parameterization: Enables you to view the current values of each step containing the selected value. For each step, you can choose whether or not to parameterize the value, and if so, which parameterization options you want to use, the Next button is enabled when you select this option, this will enable us to select an other instance of the constant selected and parameterize that instant, it will continue the same process till all the instances of the given value are done.

Parameterize all: Enables you to parameterize all occurrences of the selected value throughout the action. When you select this option the Parameter details area is enabled. The Finish button is enabled when you select this option.

Here Parameter tab can be selected using the button given at the “Parameter” radio button, and in the next screen select the datatable Field from where the property for which the value belongs is parametererized, click on “Finish” button thus all the instances of the value selected for parameterization will be parameterized.

Importing and Exporting Datasheets: Importing and Exporting of Datasheets are used for reading, writing and manipulating the data in an excel sheet.

Importing Datasheet: Imports a sheet of a specified file to a specified sheet in the run-time Data Table. The data in the imported sheet replaces the data in the destination sheet (see SheetDest argument).

Note: All the fields in the imported sheets should match with the data used in the script.
There are two functions for Importing, Importing the whole excel file and Importing the sheets in the file.

Function for Importing the whole Excel file:

Imports the file into the script with all the sheets which are there in the excel file.

Note: Sheets in the excel file should match with the Actions in the script to use the data efficiently, since action name and corresponding sheet name should be same.

Syntax:
Import “filenamewithpath”
Function for Importing the sheets from the excel file:
Imports the specified sheet into the script.

Syntax:
Importsheet “filenamewithpath”,”sourcesheetname”, ”destinationsheetname”

Exporting Datasheet: Exports a specified sheet of the run-time Data Table to the specified file.

• If the specified file does not exist, a new file is created and the specified sheet is saved.
• If the current file exists, but the file does not contain a sheet with the specified sheet name, the sheet is inserted as the last sheet of the file.
• If the current file exists and the file contains the specified sheet, the exported sheet overwrites the existing sheet.

Same as Importing, There are two functions for Exporting, Exporting the whole excel file and Exporting the sheets in the file.

Function for exporting the whole Excel file: Exports the file into the script with all the sheets which are there in the excel file.

Syntax:
Export “filenamewithpath”
Function for Exporting the sheets from the excel file:
Exports the specified sheet into the script.

Syntax:
Exportsheet “filenamewithpath”,”sourcesheetname”, ”destinationsheetname”

Also See:

• Settings in QTP
• Naming Conventions in QTP
• Objects and Actions in QTP

The post DataTable in QTP appeared first on Software Testing Stuff.